Question #211190

Let f : M → Y be a homeomorphism and O an open subset of M. Explain

concisely in no more than two lines of text why f(O) is an open set


Expert's answer

Since f(O)=(f1)1(O)f(O)=(f^{-1})^{-1}(O) is a preimage of an open subset OMO\subset M under a continuous map f1:YM,f^{-1}:Y\to M, we conclude that f(O)f(O) is also open.


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