Let f : M → Y be a homeomorphism and O an open subset of M. Explain
concisely in no more than two lines of text why f(O) is an open set
Since f(O)=(f−1)−1(O)f(O)=(f^{-1})^{-1}(O)f(O)=(f−1)−1(O) is a preimage of an open subset O⊂MO\subset MO⊂M under a continuous map f−1:Y→M,f^{-1}:Y\to M,f−1:Y→M, we conclude that f(O)f(O)f(O) is also open.
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