Suppose that (fn) is a sequence of real- or complex-valued functions defined on a set A, and that
there is a sequence of non-negative numbers (Mn) satisfying
∀n≥1,∀x∈A:∣fn(x)∣≤Mn,{n=1∑∞Mn<∞.Then the seriesn=1∑∞fn(x) converges absolutely and uniformly on A
Proof
Consider the sequence of functionsSn(x)=k=1∑nfk(x).Since the seriesn=1∑∞MnconvergesandMn≥0for everyn,then by the Cauchy criterion,∀ε>0:∃N:∀m>n>N:k=n+1∑mMk<ε.For the chosen N,∀x∈A:∀m>n>N∣Sm(x)−Sn(x)∣=∣∣k=n+1∑mfk(x)∣∣≤(1)k=n+1∑m∣fk(x)∣≤k=n+1∑mMk<ε.(Inequality (1) follows from the triangle inequality.)The sequence Sn(x) is thus a Cauchy sequence in R or C, and by completeness, it converges to some number S(x) that depends on x. For n > N we can write∣S(x)−Sn(x)∣=∣∣m→∞limSm(x)−Sn(x)∣∣=m→∞lim∣Sm(x)−Sn(x)∣≤ε.Since N does not depend on x, this means that the sequence Sn of partial sums converges uniformly to the function S.Hence, by definition, the seriesk=1∑∞fk(x)converges uniformly.Analogously, one can prove thatk=1∑∞∣fk(x)∣converges uniformly.
Finding a professional expert in "partial differential equations" in the advanced level is difficult.
You can find this expert in "Assignmentexpert.com" with confidence.
Exceptional experts! I appreciate your help. God bless you!
Comments