Question #134685

Suppose that (š‘„āˆ)āˆšœ–š½ ⟶ š‘„ in X and (š‘¦āˆ)āˆšœ–š½ ⟶ š‘¦ in Y. Show that

(š‘„š›¼ Ɨ š‘¦š›¼) → š‘„ Ɨ š‘¦ š‘–š‘› š‘‹ Ɨ š‘Œ.


Expert's answer

(š‘„š›¼ Ɨ š‘¦š›¼) → š‘„ Ɨ š‘¦ š‘–š‘› š‘‹ Ɨ š‘Œ


proof considering the limits

lim α→1\alpha\to1 (xα)α=X(x^\alpha)^\alpha = X and lim α\alpha→1\to1 (yα)α=Y(y^\alpha)^\alpha = Y


lim α\alpha→1\to1 (xα)α=αx,(x^\alpha)^\alpha = \alpha x , lim α\alpha→1\to1 (yα)α=αY(y^\alpha)^\alpha = \alpha Y


since α→1\alpha\to1 then (š‘„š›¼ Ɨ š‘¦š›¼) → š‘„ Ɨ š‘¦ š‘–š‘› š‘‹ Ɨ š‘Œ





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