Answer on Question #50745 - Math - Calculus
Obtain the Fourier series for the following periodic function which has a period of 2 π 2\pi 2 π :
f ( x ) = { − 1 2 ( π − x ) , − π < x < 0 1 2 ( π + x ) , 0 < x < π f(x) = \begin{cases}
-\frac{1}{2}(\pi - x), & -\pi < x < 0 \\
\frac{1}{2}(\pi + x), & 0 < x < \pi
\end{cases} f ( x ) = { − 2 1 ( π − x ) , 2 1 ( π + x ) , − π < x < 0 0 < x < π Solution
Let's compute coefficients of the Fourier series:
a n = 1 π ∫ − π π f ( x ) d x = 1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π ( π + x ) d x − ∫ − π 0 ( π − x ) d x ) = 1 2 π ( ( π x + 1 2 x 2 ) ∣ 0 π − ( π x − 1 2 x 2 ) ∣ − π 0 ) = = 1 2 π ( 3 2 π 2 − 3 2 π 2 ) = 0 \begin{aligned}
a_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x) \, dx &= \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} (\pi + x) \, dx - \int_{-\pi}^{0} (\pi - x) \, dx \right) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( (\pi x + \frac{1}{2} x^2) \Big|_0^{\pi} - (\pi x - \frac{1}{2} x^2) \Big|_{-\pi}^{0} \right) = \\
&= \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \frac{3}{2} \pi^2 - \frac{3}{2} \pi^2 \right) = 0
\end{aligned} a n = π 1 ∫ − π π f ( x ) d x = 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π ( π + x ) d x − ∫ − π 0 ( π − x ) d x ) = 2 π 1 ( ( π x + 2 1 x 2 ) ∣ ∣ 0 π − ( π x − 2 1 x 2 ) ∣ ∣ − π 0 ) = = 2 π 1 ( 2 3 π 2 − 2 3 π 2 ) = 0
for n ≥ 1 n \geq 1 n ≥ 1 :
a n = 1 π ∫ − π π f ( x ) cos n x d x = 1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π ( π + x ) cos n x d x − ∫ − π 0 ( π − x ) cos n x d x ) = = 1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π π cos n x d x − ∫ − π 0 π cos n x d x + ∫ 0 π x cos n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x cos n x d x ) = = 1 2 π ( π n sin n x ∣ 0 π − π n sin n x ∣ − π 0 + ∫ 0 π x cos n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x cos n x d x ) = 1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π x cos n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x cos n x d x ) \begin{aligned}
a_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x) \cos nx \, dx &= \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} (\pi + x) \cos nx \, dx - \int_{-\pi}^{0} (\pi - x) \cos nx \, dx \right) = \\
&= \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} \pi \cos nx \, dx - \int_{-\pi}^{0} \pi \cos nx \, dx + \int_0^{\pi} x \cos nx \, dx + \int_{-\pi}^{0} x \cos nx \, dx \right) = \\
&= \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \frac{\pi}{n} \sin nx \Big|_0^{\pi} - \frac{\pi}{n} \sin nx \Big|_{-\pi}^{0} + \int_0^{\pi} x \cos nx \, dx + \int_{-\pi}^{0} x \cos nx \, dx \right) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} x \cos nx \, dx + \int_{-\pi}^{0} x \cos nx \, dx \right)
\end{aligned} a n = π 1 ∫ − π π f ( x ) cos n x d x = 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π ( π + x ) cos n x d x − ∫ − π 0 ( π − x ) cos n x d x ) = = 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π π cos n x d x − ∫ − π 0 π cos n x d x + ∫ 0 π x cos n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x cos n x d x ) = = 2 π 1 ( n π sin n x ∣ ∣ 0 π − n π sin n x ∣ ∣ − π 0 + ∫ 0 π x cos n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x cos n x d x ) = 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π x cos n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x cos n x d x )
Due to integration by parts formula, where u ( x ) = x u(x) = x u ( x ) = x and d v ( x ) = cos n x d x dv(x) = \cos nx \, dx d v ( x ) = cos n x d x , we obtain d u ( x ) = d x du(x) = dx d u ( x ) = d x and v ( x ) = 1 n sin n x v(x) = \frac{1}{n} \sin nx v ( x ) = n 1 sin n x . Thus, ∫ x cos n x d x = 1 n x sin n x − 1 n ∫ sin n x d x = 1 n x sin n x + 1 n 2 cos n x + C \int x \cos nx \, dx = \frac{1}{n} x \sin nx - \frac{1}{n} \int \sin nx \, dx = \frac{1}{n} x \sin nx + \frac{1}{n^2} \cos nx + C ∫ x cos n x d x = n 1 x sin n x − n 1 ∫ sin n x d x = n 1 x sin n x + n 2 1 cos n x + C , where C C C is an arbitrary real constant.
That is why
1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π x cos n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x cos n x d x ) = 1 2 π ( ( 1 n x sin n x + 1 n 2 cos n x ) ∣ 0 π + ( 1 n x sin n x + 1 n 2 cos n x ) ∣ − π 0 ) = = 1 n 2 2 π ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 + 1 − ( − 1 ) n ) = 0 \begin{aligned}
\frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} x \cos nx \, dx + \int_{-\pi}^{0} x \cos nx \, dx \right) &= \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \left( \frac{1}{n} x \sin nx + \frac{1}{n^2} \cos nx \right) \Big|_0^{\pi} + \left( \frac{1}{n} x \sin nx + \frac{1}{n^2} \cos nx \right) \Big|_{-\pi}^{0} \right) = \\
&= \frac{1}{n^2 2\pi} \left( (-1)^n - 1 + 1 - (-1)^n \right) = 0
\end{aligned} 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π x cos n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x cos n x d x ) = 2 π 1 ( ( n 1 x sin n x + n 2 1 cos n x ) ∣ ∣ 0 π + ( n 1 x sin n x + n 2 1 cos n x ) ∣ ∣ − π 0 ) = = n 2 2 π 1 ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 + 1 − ( − 1 ) n ) = 0
Thus, a n = 0 a_n = 0 a n = 0 , for n ≥ 1 n \geq 1 n ≥ 1
b n = 1 π ∫ − π π f ( x ) sin n x d x = 1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π ( π + x ) sin n x d x − ∫ − π 0 ( π − x ) sin n x d x ) = = 1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π π sin n x d x − ∫ − π 0 π sin n x d x + ∫ 0 π x sin n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x sin n x d x ) = 1 2 n ( cos n x ∣ 0 π − cos n x ∣ − π 0 ) + + 1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π x sin n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x sin n x d x ) = 1 n ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 ) + 1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π x sin n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x sin n x d x ) \begin{aligned}
b_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x) \sin nx \, dx &= \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} (\pi + x) \sin nx \, dx - \int_{-\pi}^{0} (\pi - x) \sin nx \, dx \right) = \\
&= \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} \pi \sin nx \, dx - \int_{-\pi}^{0} \pi \sin nx \, dx + \int_0^{\pi} x \sin nx \, dx + \int_{-\pi}^{0} x \sin nx \, dx \right) = \frac{1}{2n} \left( \cos nx \Big|_0^{\pi} - \cos nx \Big|_{-\pi}^{0} \right) + \\
&+ \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} x \sin nx \, dx + \int_{-\pi}^{0} x \sin nx \, dx \right) = \frac{1}{n} \left( (-1)^n - 1 \right) + \frac{1}{2\pi} \left( \int_0^{\pi} x \sin nx \, dx + \int_{-\pi}^{0} x \sin nx \, dx \right)
\end{aligned} b n = π 1 ∫ − π π f ( x ) sin n x d x = 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π ( π + x ) sin n x d x − ∫ − π 0 ( π − x ) sin n x d x ) = = 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π π sin n x d x − ∫ − π 0 π sin n x d x + ∫ 0 π x sin n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x sin n x d x ) = 2 n 1 ( cos n x ∣ ∣ 0 π − cos n x ∣ ∣ − π 0 ) + + 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π x sin n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x sin n x d x ) = n 1 ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 ) + 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π x sin n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x sin n x d x )
Due to integration by parts formula, where u ( x ) = x u(x) = x u ( x ) = x and d v ( x ) = sin n x d x dv(x) = \sin nx \, dx d v ( x ) = sin n x d x , we obtain d u ( x ) = d x du(x) = dx d u ( x ) = d x and v ( x ) = − 1 n cos n x v(x) = -\frac{1}{n} \cos nx v ( x ) = − n 1 cos n x . Thus, ∫ x sin n x d x = − 1 n x cos n x + 1 n ∫ cos n x d x = − 1 n x cos n x + 1 n 2 sin n x + C \int x \sin nx \, dx = -\frac{1}{n} x \cos nx + \frac{1}{n} \int \cos nx \, dx = -\frac{1}{n} x \cos nx + \frac{1}{n^2} \sin nx + C ∫ x sin n x d x = − n 1 x cos n x + n 1 ∫ cos n x d x = − n 1 x cos n x + n 2 1 sin n x + C , where C C C is an arbitrary real constant.
That is why
1 2 π ( ∫ 0 π x sin n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x sin n x d x ) = 1 2 π ( ( − 1 n x cos n x + 1 n 2 sin n x ) ∣ 0 π + ( − 1 n x cos n x + 1 n 2 sin n x ) ∣ − π 0 ) = = 1 2 n ( 1 − ( − 1 ) n − 1 + ( − 1 ) n ) = 0. \begin{array}{l}
\frac {1}{2 \pi} \left(\int_ {0} ^ {\pi} x \sin n x d x + \int_ {- \pi} ^ {0} x \sin n x d x\right) = \frac {1}{2 \pi} \left(\left(- \frac {1}{n} x \cos n x + \frac {1}{n ^ {2}} \sin n x\right) \Big | _ {0} ^ {\pi} + \left(- \frac {1}{n} x \cos n x + \frac {1}{n ^ {2}} \sin n x\right) \Big | _ {- \pi} ^ {0}\right) = \\
= \frac {1}{2 n} \left(1 - (- 1) ^ {n} - 1 + (- 1) ^ {n}\right) = 0.
\end{array} 2 π 1 ( ∫ 0 π x sin n x d x + ∫ − π 0 x sin n x d x ) = 2 π 1 ( ( − n 1 x cos n x + n 2 1 sin n x ) ∣ ∣ 0 π + ( − n 1 x cos n x + n 2 1 sin n x ) ∣ ∣ − π 0 ) = = 2 n 1 ( 1 − ( − 1 ) n − 1 + ( − 1 ) n ) = 0.
Thus, b n = 1 n ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 ) b_{n} = \frac{1}{n}\left((-1)^{n} - 1\right) b n = n 1 ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 ) , for n ≥ 1 n \geq 1 n ≥ 1
Therefore we obtain the Fourier series of the function f ( x ) f(x) f ( x ) :
f ( x ) ∼ ∑ n = 1 ∞ 1 n ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 ) sin n x f (x) \sim \sum_ {n = 1} ^ {\infty} \frac {1}{n} \left((- 1) ^ {n} - 1\right) \sin n x f ( x ) ∼ n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 1 ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 ) sin n x
Answer: f ( x ) ∼ ∑ n = 1 ∞ 1 n ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 ) sin n x f(x) \sim \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} \left((-1)^{n} - 1\right) \sin nx f ( x ) ∼ ∑ n = 1 ∞ n 1 ( ( − 1 ) n − 1 ) sin n x
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