Question #41154

Can L' Hospital's rule the applied to evaluate the limit
lim x tends to (pi)/2 (1-sin x)/cos x
if yes , evaluate the limit .
1

Expert's answer

2014-04-08T01:56:09-0400

Answer on Question # 41154 – Math - Integral Calculus

Can L' Hospital's rule be applied to evaluate the limit lim x tends to (pi)/2 (1-sin x)/cos x. If yes, evaluate the limit.

Solution.

Because the functions f(x)=1sinxf(x) = 1 - \sin x and g(x)=cosxg(x) = \cos x are differentiable on an open interval containing pi/2 and f(π2)=g(π2)=[00],g(x)0f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = g\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = \left[\frac{0}{0}\right], g'(x) \neq 0 we can apply L'Hospital's rule.

We have the limit:


limxπ21sinxcosx\lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \sin x}{\cos x}


Evaluate the limit:


limxπ21sinxcosx=[1sinπ2cosπ2]=[00]\lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \sin x}{\cos x} = \left[ \frac{1 - \sin \frac{\pi}{2}}{\cos \frac{\pi}{2}} \right] = \left[ \frac{0}{0} \right]


Then we can use L'Hospital's rule:


limxπ21sinxcosx=limxπ2cosxsinx=limxπ2cotx=cotπ2=0\lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \sin x}{\cos x} = \lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{-\cos x}{-\sin x} = \lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \cot x = \cot \frac{\pi}{2} = 0


Answer:


limxπ21sinxcosx=0\lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \sin x}{\cos x} = 0

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