If you divide or multiply each number in a pythagorean triple by a constant will you get another pythagorean triple? Is this statement true or false, if false, why?
1
Expert's answer
2012-11-05T09:57:03-0500
As we know c^2=a^2+b^2. As we multiply all three numbers bysome d we get: (dc)^2=(ad)^2+(db)^2 ord^2c^2=d^2(a^2+b^2) which is right. So pythagorean equality is still working we got another pythagorean triple.
"assignmentexpert.com" is professional group of people in Math subjects! They did assignments in very high level of mathematical modelling in the best quality. Thanks a lot
Comments