Answer to Question #32448 in Functional Analysis for Yee-Chen Sheng

Question #32448

(a) Find the Fourier sine transform of e^(-x), x>= 0.
(b) Show that the integral from 0 to infinity of (xsinmx)/(x^2+1) dx = (pi/2)e^-m, m>0 by using the result in (a)

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