XYZ’s stock price in $100. 1-year European-style options on XYZ are trading at an implied volatility of 15%. (Assume zero dividends and zero interest rates: q=0% and r=0%.)
[a] Where should we set the strike price of a 1-year call to give it a delta of +0.25?
[b] q=0% and r=0% imply that the forward price = $100. It follows from put-call parity that $100-strike call and the $100-strike put are priced equally. Are their deltas +0.50 and -0.50, respectively?
a) Since q=0% and r=0% ,the formula for Black Scholes delta formula is
0.25 = N[ ln(100/k)/0.15 +0.075]
From tables
N[0.66] =0.25
0.66 = ln(100/k)/0.15 + 0.075
0.08775 = ln (100/k)
exp( 0.08775) = 100/k
k =91.60
b) Given q=0% and r=0%
Considering put call parity
Ct+Pt = St+K. exp^(rt)
100 -100 = 100- 100
Hence it holds and hence overall delta is equal to zero
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