Given R is a relation from A = {1,2,3,4,5}, R={(1,1),(2,2),(2,3),(2,4),(3,3),(4,4),(4,5)}.
Is R an equivalence relation?
Since (2,3)∈R(2,3) \in R(2,3)∈R , but (3,2)∉R(3,2) \notin R(3,2)∈/R then R is not a symmetric relation, and therefore is not an equivalence relation.
Answer: No
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