Answer to Question #313373 in Discrete Mathematics for Jrd

Question #313373

Show that ¬p→(q→r) and q→(p ∨ r) are logically equivalent

1
Expert's answer
2022-03-18T09:21:56-0400

Solution


The truth table for "\u00acp\u2192(q\u2192r)" and "q\u2192(p \u2228 r)" is shown below





From the 6th column (from left) and the 8th column, we can see that


"\u00acp\u2192(q\u2192r)" and "q\u2192(p \u2228 r)" are logically equivalent.




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