Show that ¬p→(q→r) and q→(p ∨ r) are logically equivalent
The truth table for "\u00acp\u2192(q\u2192r)" and "q\u2192(p \u2228 r)" is shown below
From the 6th column (from left) and the 8th column, we can see that
"\u00acp\u2192(q\u2192r)" and "q\u2192(p \u2228 r)" are logically equivalent.
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