Show that (p → r) ∧ (q → r) and (p ∨ q) → r are logically equivalent.
"(p \\to r) \\land (q \\to r) = (\\lnot p \\land r) \\land (\\lnot q \\land r) = (\\lnot p \\land \\lnot q) \\land (r \\land r)="
"=\\lnot (p \\lor q) \\land r=(p \\lor q) \\to r"
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