Question #267822

2.     Indicate if the following statements are possible. Justify your answer. If the answer is “yes”, give a specific example of the functions. Let f:   and g: Z be two functions. Use a diagram if that helps explain the function.

a)  Is it possible that f is not onto and g ◦ f is onto? 

b)  Is it possible that g is not onto and g ◦ f is onto?

c)  Is it possible that g is not one-to-one and g ◦ f is one-to-one? 

1
Expert's answer
2021-11-21T17:11:38-0500

Since in question domain and codomain of both functions were not exactly specified, answer will be given in assumption of domain and codomain of both functions being subsets of ZZ.

a)Yes. Since codomain of g ◦ f function is same as codomain of function g due to definition of function composition. If f(x):ABf(x): A \mapsto B and g(y):BCg(y) : B\mapsto C then gf(x):AC and gf(x)=g(f(x))g ◦ f(x) : A\mapsto C \ and \ g ◦ f(x)=g(f(x)).

For example if f:ZZZ \mapsto Z f(x)=|x| and g:ZZ+Z \mapsto Z^+g(x)=|x|. This will result in function gf(x):ZZ+g ◦ f(x) : Z\mapsto Z^+ and obviously for every element y in Z+ exist at least one element x in Z such as g ◦ f(x)=y

b)No. As said above function g defines codomain of composition, and if where is not empty subset CCC' \subset C such as yBg(y)C\nexists y\in B \mid g(y) \in C'.

c)Yes. if for example f:Z+Z+Z^+ \mapsto Z^+ f(x)=2x and g:ZZ+Z \mapsto Z^+ g(x)=|x|. g is not on-to-one function, since exists x1=1 and x2=-1 which make statement g(x1)=g(x2)x1=x2g(x_1)=g(x_2) \to x_1=x_2 false. But function g ◦ f is Z+Z+Z^+ \mapsto Z^+function and now for every x1 and x2 gf(x1)=gf(x2)x1=x2g ◦ f(x_1)=g ◦ f(x_2) \to x_1=x_2


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