Question #262867

We call a positive integer perfect if it equals the sum of its positive divisors


other than itself.


(a) Prove that 6 and 28 are perfect numbers


(b) Prove that if 2p − 1 is prime, then 2p−1



1
Expert's answer
2021-11-10T17:44:47-0500

a.

The divisors of 66 are 1,2, and 31,2, \space and \space 3. If we sum these divisors then we have ,

1+2+3=61+2+3=6, Therefore, 6 is a perfect number.

The divisors of 2828 are 1,2,4,7,141,2,4,7,14. Summing these divisors gives,

1+2+4+7+14=281+2+4+7+14=28. This shows that 2828 is a perfect number.


b.

We need to show that If 2p12^p-1 is a prime number, then 2p1(2p1)2^{p-1}(2^p-1) is a perfect number. 

Let pp be an integer so that 2p12^p-1 is a prime number. Also, let n=2p1n=2^p-1 so that 2p1(2p1)=2p1n2^{p-1}(2^p-1)=2^{p-1}n. We can write the divisors of 2p12^{p-1} as, 1,2,4,8,...,2p11,2,4,8,...,2^{p-1}. Since nn

is prime, we can write out the other divisors of 2p1n2^{p-1}n as, n,2n,4n,8n,...,2p2nn,2n,4n,8n,...,2^{p-2}n.

Let us recall that,

1+x+x2+x3+...+xp1=(xp1)/(x1)1+x+x^2+x^3+...+x^{p-1}=(x^p-1)/(x-1), where x=2x=2 so,

1+2+4+8+...+2p1=(2p1)/(21)=2p1=n...........(i)1+2+4+8+...+2^{p-1}=(2^p-1)/(2-1)=2^p-1=n...........(i)

We can use the same formula we have used to find equation(i)equation(i) for,

n+2n+4n+8n+...+2p2nn+2n+4n+8n+...+2^{p-2}n

We can see that,

n+2n+4n+8n+...+2p2n=n(1+2+4+8+...+2p2)=n(1+21+22+23+...+2p2)=n(2p11)/(21)=n(2p11)............(ii)n+2n+4n+8n+...+2^{p-2}n=n(1+2+4+8+...+2^{p-2})=n(1+2^1+2^2+2^3+...+2^{p-2})=n(2^{p-1}-1)/(2-1)=n(2^{p-1}-1)............(ii)

We can now sum all the divisors of 2p1n2^{p-1}n by combining equations (i)(i) and (ii)(ii), 1+2+4+...+2n1+n+2n+4n+...+2p2n=n+n(2p11)=n+2p1nn=2p1n=2p1(2p1)1+2+4+...+2^{n-1}+n+2n+4n+...+2^{p-2}n=n+n(2^{p-1}-1)=n+2^{p-1}n-n=2^{p-1}n=2^{p-1}(2^p-1)

Therefore, if 2p12^p-1 is prime then 2p1(2p1)2^{p-1}(2^p-1) is perfect. \blacksquare


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