Solution:
Given that m divides an−bn .
We know that for any integer n,
an−bn=(a−b)(an−1+an−2b+...+abn−2+bn−1) ...(i)
⇒m divides (a−b).
Now, consider abn−ban
=−ab(an−1−bn−1)
=−ab(a−b)(an−2+an−3b+...+abn−3+bn−2) [Using (i)]
We can see that (a−b) is also a factor here and thus, divisible by m.
Hence, yes, m divides abn−ban.
Proved.
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