Converse of given statement is
i) If there exists two integers xxx and yyy such that n=x2+y2n=x^2+y^2n=x2+y2 for a natural number nnn , then n≡1(mod 4)n \equiv 1(mod \ 4)n≡1(mod 4).
Note: This statement is not true in general.
E.g.: Let 8=22+228 = 2^2+2^28=22+22 but 8 ≢1(mod 4)\not\equiv 1(mod\ 4)≡1(mod 4).
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