Answer on Question #73400 – Math – Differential Equations
Question
Show that the function u(x,y)=tan−1(xy) is a solution of the two dimensional Laplace's equation¹.
Solution
Laplace equation is ∂x2∂2u+∂y2∂2u=0.
First let note that our function has a form u(x,y)=f(xy). Let rewrite Laplace equation for our particular case:
a) ∂x∂u=f′(xy)⋅(−x2y)
b) ∂x2∂2u=f′′(xy)⋅(−x2y)2+f′(xy)⋅(x32y)
c) ∂y∂u=f′(xy)⋅(x1)
d) ∂y2∂2u=f′′(xy)⋅(x1)2
The Laplace equation becomes:
∂x2∂2u+∂y2∂2u=f′′(xy)⋅(−x2y)2+f′(xy)⋅(x32y)+f′′(xy)⋅(x1)2==x41(f′′(xy)⋅(y2+x2)+2f′(xy)⋅yx)
Now we back to our function f(z)=tan−1(z), and find first and second derivatives with respect to a single variable z.
a) f′(z)=dzdf(z)=dzd(tan−1(z))=z2+11
b) f′′(z)=dz2d2f(z)=dzd(z2+11)=−(z2+1)22z
Finally, substitute f′′(xy) and f′(xy) to corresponding Laplace equation and after some transformation and simplification we get:
∂x2∂2u+∂y2∂2u=x41(−((xy)2+1)22⋅(xy)⋅(y2+x2)+2⋅(xy)2+11⋅yx)==x4⋅((xy)2+1)22(−(xy)⋅(y2+x2)+yx⋅((xy)2+1))=
¹ All formulas can be verified on http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/
=x4⋅((xy)2+1)22(−xy3−xyx2+x2y3x+yx)=0,Q.E.D
One has to be careful to specify an appropriate domain.
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