Answer on Question #37226 – Math - Differential Calculus
Find the Taylors expansion of f ( x ) = sin x f(x) = \sin x f ( x ) = sin x at x = 0 x = 0 x = 0
Solution.
Taylor's theorem.
Suppose f ( x ) f(x) f ( x ) has derivatives of all orders at x = b x = b x = b . The Taylor series of f ( x ) f(x) f ( x ) expanded about x = b x = b x = b is
f ( x ) = ∑ n = 0 ∞ f ( n ) ( b ) n ! ( x − b ) n f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{f^{(n)}(b)}{n!} (x - b)^n f ( x ) = n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! f ( n ) ( b ) ( x − b ) n
Let's find the Taylor series of f ( x ) = sin x f(x) = \sin x f ( x ) = sin x expanded about x = 0 x = 0 x = 0 .
First, compute the derivatives and look for a pattern.
f ′ ( x ) = cos x f ′ ( 0 ) = 1 f'(x) = \cos x \quad f'(0) = 1 f ′ ( x ) = cos x f ′ ( 0 ) = 1 f ′ ′ ( x ) = − sin x f ′ ′ ( 0 ) = 0 f''(x) = -\sin x \quad f''(0) = 0 f ′′ ( x ) = − sin x f ′′ ( 0 ) = 0 f ′ ′ ′ ( x ) = − cos x f ′ ′ ′ ( 0 ) = − 1 f'''(x) = -\cos x \quad f'''(0) = -1 f ′′′ ( x ) = − cos x f ′′′ ( 0 ) = − 1 f ( 4 ) ( x ) = sin x f ( 4 ) ( 0 ) = 0 f^{(4)}(x) = \sin x \quad f^{(4)}(0) = 0 f ( 4 ) ( x ) = sin x f ( 4 ) ( 0 ) = 0 f ( 5 ) ( x ) = cos x f ( 5 ) ( 0 ) = 1 f^{(5)}(x) = \cos x \quad f^{(5)}(0) = 1 f ( 5 ) ( x ) = cos x f ( 5 ) ( 0 ) = 1
So we see
sin x = x − x 3 3 ! + x 5 5 ! − x 7 7 ! + x 9 9 ! − ⋯ + \sin x = x - \frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^5}{5!} - \frac{x^7}{7!} + \frac{x^9}{9!} - \cdots + sin x = x − 3 ! x 3 + 5 ! x 5 − 7 ! x 7 + 9 ! x 9 − ⋯ +
The n t h n^{th} n t h term is ( − 1 ) n − 1 x 2 n − 1 ( 2 n − 1 ) ! \frac{(-1)^{n-1} x^{2n-1}}{(2n-1)!} ( 2 n − 1 )! ( − 1 ) n − 1 x 2 n − 1 .
To find the interval of convergence, observe that for all x x x , and for all x x x
∣ f ( n + 1 ) ( x ) ∣ ≤ 1 \left| f^{(n+1)}(x) \right| \leq 1 ∣ ∣ f ( n + 1 ) ( x ) ∣ ∣ ≤ 1
So in Taylor's inequality
∣ R n ( x ) ∣ ≤ M ( n + 1 ) ! ∣ x − b ∣ n + 1 |R_n(x)| \leq \frac{M}{(n+1)!} |x - b|^{n+1} ∣ R n ( x ) ∣ ≤ ( n + 1 )! M ∣ x − b ∣ n + 1
we can take M = 1 M = 1 M = 1 and C = ∞ C = \infty C = ∞ , for each x x x obtaining ∣ R n ( x ) ∣ ≤ ∣ x ∣ n + 1 ( n + 1 ) ! |R_n(x)| \leq \frac{|x|^{n+1}}{(n+1)!} ∣ R n ( x ) ∣ ≤ ( n + 1 )! ∣ x ∣ n + 1
Now apply the Ration Test
lim n → ∞ ∣ x ∣ n + 2 / ( n + 2 ) ! ∣ x ∣ n + 1 / ( n + 1 ) ! = lim n → ∞ ∣ x ∣ ( n + 2 ) ! = 0 \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{|x|^{n+2} / (n+2)!}{|x|^{n+1} / (n+1)!} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{|x|}{(n+2)!} = 0 n → ∞ lim ∣ x ∣ n + 1 / ( n + 1 )! ∣ x ∣ n + 2 / ( n + 2 )! = n → ∞ lim ( n + 2 )! ∣ x ∣ = 0
for all x x x and we see the radius of convergence is infinite.