Question #16130

Expert's answer

Since R\mathbb{R} is Banach space so is B(X)B(X) - space of all bounded linear functionals defined on XX.

Then:


fnfn+p=fnfn+1+fn+1fn+2+fn+2+fn+p1fn+pcn+cn+1++cn+p1k=nckn0\begin{array}{l} \left\| f _ {n} - f _ {n + p} \right\| = \left\| f _ {n} - f _ {n + 1} + f _ {n + 1} - f _ {n + 2} + f _ {n + 2} - \dots + f _ {n + p - 1} - f _ {n + p} \right\| \leq c _ {n} + c _ {n + 1} + \dots + c _ {n + p - 1} \leq \\ \leq \sum_ {k = n} ^ {\infty} c _ {k} \xrightarrow [ n \to \infty ]{} 0 \end{array}


So sequence (fn)nN\left(f_n\right)_{n\in \mathbb{N}} is Cauchy sequence, and as B(X)B(X) is complete then in converges to some fB(X)f\in B(X), and so it is uniformly convergent by definition.

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