Question #263786

Show that 𝑓(𝑧) = π‘₯ 2 + 𝑦 2 where 𝑧 = π‘₯ + 𝑖𝑦 is not analytic anywhere using Cauchy Riemann equations.


Expert's answer

Cauchy Riemann Equations:

Given, f(x+iy)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)f(x+iy)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y) and it should satisfy 

βˆ‚uβˆ‚x=βˆ‚vβˆ‚yandβˆ‚uβˆ‚y=βˆ’βˆ‚vβˆ‚x\frac{βˆ‚u} {βˆ‚x}= \frac{βˆ‚v}{ βˆ‚y} \\and\\\frac{ βˆ‚u}{ βˆ‚y} =\frac{βˆ’βˆ‚v}{ βˆ‚x}


If Cauchy Riemann equations are satisfied, then the function is analytic.


Givenf(z)=x2+y2U(x,y)=x2+y2=0Ux=2x;Uy=2yvx=0;vy=0Given\\f(z)=x^2+y^2\\U(x,y)=x^2+y^2=0\\U_x=2x;U_y=2y\\v_x=0;v_y=0

Cauchy Riemann equations.

Ux=vy;Uy=βˆ’vx2x=0;2y=0U_x=v_y;U_y=-v_x\\2x=0;2y=0

Since the given function doesn't satisfy the property of Cauchy Riemann equation which shows

that f(z)=x2+y2f(z)=x^2+y^2\\

Is not analytic.


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