consider the series S(z)=(sum from n=1 to infinity) sin(z)/n^2 (1+cos(piz))
a) prove that this series does not converge uniformly on C.
1
Expert's answer
2012-10-24T09:56:37-0400
S(z)=(sum from n=1 to infinity) sin(z)/n^2 (1+cos(piz)) |Fn(x)-F(x)|<e->0 n-> sin(z)/n^w(1+cos(piz)), so at n=0 it goes to infinity. That means, there is no uniform converging.
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