Question #52569

Q. If (a,b)=1 then prove that
(a-b, a+b, ab)=1
1

Expert's answer

2015-05-14T10:29:59-0400

Answer on Question #52569 – Math, Combinatorics – Number Theory

Question. If (a,b)=1(a,b)=1, then prove that (ab,a+b,ab)=1(a-b,a+b,ab)=1.

Solution. Notice that the statement (a,b)=1(a,b)=1 is equivalent to the assumption that there exist integer numbers p,qp,q such that

ap+bq=1.ap+bq=1.

We should prove that (ab,a+b,ab)=1(a-b,a+b,ab)=1, i.e. that the greatest common divisor of all three numbers a+ba+b aba-b and abab is 11. However, it may happens that some of them are not relatively prime.

For instance (5,3)=1(5,3)=1, but (5+3,53)=2(5+3,5-3)=2. Nevertheless in this case we have that (5+3,53,53)=1(5+3,5-3,5\cdot 3)=1.

It suffices to show that

(a+b,ab)=1,(a+b,ab)=1,

that is a+ba+b and abab has no nontrivial common divisors. This will imply that all three numbers aba-b, a+ba+b and abab has no nontrivial common divisors, i.e. (ab,a+b,ab)=1(a-b,a+b,ab)=1. For the proof we need two lemmas.

Lemma 1. If (a,b)=1(a,b)=1, then (a,a+b)=(b,a+b)=1(a,a+b)=(b,a+b)=1 as well.

Proof. It suffices only to prove that (a,a+b)=1(a,a+b)=1. From ap+bq=1ap+bq=1, we geet

1=(a,b)=ap+bq=apaq+aq+bq=a(pq)+(a+b)q=(a,a+b)1=(a,b)=ap+bq=ap-aq+aq+bq=a(p-q)+(a+b)q=(a,a+b)

Lemma 1 is proved. \square

Lemma 2. If (x,a)=(x,b)=1(x,a)=(x,b)=1 and (a,b)=1(a,b)=1, then (x,ab)=1(x,ab)=1 as well.

Proof. By assumption there are integer numbers α,β,γ,δ\alpha,\beta,\gamma,\delta such that

(x,a)(x,a) =αx+βa=1,=\alpha x+\beta a=1,

(x,b)(x,b) =γx+δb=1.=\gamma x+\delta b=1.

Multiplying the first equation by bqbq and the second by apap and adding them we get

(αx+βa)bq+(γx+δb)ap=bq+ap.(\alpha x+\beta a)bq+(\gamma x+\delta b)ap=bq+ap.

Taking to account that (a,b)=ap+bq=1(a,b)=ap+bq=1, we see that the right hand side is 11, whence

(αx+βa)bq+(γx+δb)ap=1,(\alpha x+\beta a)bq+(\gamma x+\delta b)ap=1,

x(αbq+γqp)+ab(βq+δp)=1.x(\alpha bq+\gamma qp)+ab(\beta q+\delta p)=1.

thus (x,ab)=1(x,ab)=1 as well. Lemma 2 is proved. \square

Corollary 3. (a+b,ab)=1(a+b,ab)=1.

Proof. By Lemma 1 we have that (a+b,a)=(a+b,b)=1(a+b,a)=(a+b,b)=1. Then from Lemma 2 applied to x=a+bx=a+b it follows that (a+b,ab)=1(a+b,ab)=1. Corollary 3 is proved. \square

Now we can complete the proof. Notice that by definition (ab,a+b,ab)(a-b,a+b,ab) divides a+ba+b and abab, whence it must divide (a+b,ab)=1(a+b,ab)=1. Therefore (ab,a+b,ab)=(a+b,ab)=1(a-b,a+b,ab)=(a+b,ab)=1.


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