Answer on Question #52569 – Math, Combinatorics – Number Theory
Question. If (a,b)=1, then prove that (a−b,a+b,ab)=1.
Solution. Notice that the statement (a,b)=1 is equivalent to the assumption that there exist integer numbers p,q such that
ap+bq=1.
We should prove that (a−b,a+b,ab)=1, i.e. that the greatest common divisor of all three numbers a+b a−b and ab is 1. However, it may happens that some of them are not relatively prime.
For instance (5,3)=1, but (5+3,5−3)=2. Nevertheless in this case we have that (5+3,5−3,5⋅3)=1.
It suffices to show that
(a+b,ab)=1,
that is a+b and ab has no nontrivial common divisors. This will imply that all three numbers a−b, a+b and ab has no nontrivial common divisors, i.e. (a−b,a+b,ab)=1. For the proof we need two lemmas.
Lemma 1. If (a,b)=1, then (a,a+b)=(b,a+b)=1 as well.
Proof. It suffices only to prove that (a,a+b)=1. From ap+bq=1, we geet
1=(a,b)=ap+bq=ap−aq+aq+bq=a(p−q)+(a+b)q=(a,a+b)
Lemma 1 is proved. □
Lemma 2. If (x,a)=(x,b)=1 and (a,b)=1, then (x,ab)=1 as well.
Proof. By assumption there are integer numbers α,β,γ,δ such that
(x,a) =αx+βa=1,
(x,b) =γx+δb=1.
Multiplying the first equation by bq and the second by ap and adding them we get
(αx+βa)bq+(γx+δb)ap=bq+ap.
Taking to account that (a,b)=ap+bq=1, we see that the right hand side is 1, whence
(αx+βa)bq+(γx+δb)ap=1,
x(αbq+γqp)+ab(βq+δp)=1.
thus (x,ab)=1 as well. Lemma 2 is proved. □
Corollary 3. (a+b,ab)=1.
Proof. By Lemma 1 we have that (a+b,a)=(a+b,b)=1. Then from Lemma 2 applied to x=a+b it follows that (a+b,ab)=1. Corollary 3 is proved. □
Now we can complete the proof. Notice that by definition (a−b,a+b,ab) divides a+b and ab, whence it must divide (a+b,ab)=1. Therefore (a−b,a+b,ab)=(a+b,ab)=1.
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