Is this statement true or false ? provide reason for your answer
d/dx[ x2∫(π/2) e2cost dt ] = -2xe2(cosx^2)
"\\dfrac{d}{dx}(\\displaystyle\\int_{x}^{2}\\dfrac{\\pi}{2}e^{2\\cos t}dt)=-\\dfrac{d}{dx}(\\displaystyle\\int_{2}^{x}\\dfrac{\\pi}{2}e^{2\\cos t}dt)"
"=-\\dfrac{\\pi}{2}e^{2\\cos x}"
The statement is false.
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