Prove that π(π₯) = π₯^2 + 2π₯ is not injective.
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Expert's answer
2022-03-09T10:14:39-0500
Since "\ud835\udc53(0) = 0^2 + 2\\cdot 0=0" and "\ud835\udc53(-2) = (-2)^2 + 2(-2)=4-4=0,"we conclude that "f(0)=f(-2)," and hence "f" is not injective.
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