Question #78512

Under a rotation of axes, a parabola can become a hyperbola.
Is the statement true? Give reason for your answer, either with a short proof or a counterexample.

Expert's answer

Answer on Question #78512 – Math – Analytic Geometry

Question

Under a rotation of axes, a parabola can become a hyperbola. Is the statement true? Give reason for your answer, either with a short proof or a counterexample.

Solution

The general equation of the second-order curve is given by


a11x2+2a12xy+a22y2+2a31x+2a23y+a33=0,a_{11}x^2 + 2a_{12}xy + a_{22}y^2 + 2a_{31}x + 2a_{23}y + a_{33} = 0,


where aiia_{ii} are some coefficients. The class of the curve (ellipse, hyperbola, parabola) is defined by the following determinant


δ=a11a12a21a22\delta = \begin{vmatrix} a_{11} & a_{12} \\ a_{21} & a_{22} \end{vmatrix}


If δ>0\delta > 0 then the curve is ellipse, if δ=0\delta = 0, then parabola, else hyperbola.

First three members of the equation may be rewritten in the following way


Q(x,y)=(xy)(a11a12a21a22)(xy)Q(x,y) = \begin{pmatrix} x & y \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} a_{11} & a_{12} \\ a_{21} & a_{22} \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x \\ y \end{pmatrix}


Rotation of axes is given by


(xy)=(cosθsinθsinθcosθ)(xy),\begin{pmatrix} x \\ y \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x' \\ y' \end{pmatrix},


where x,yx', y' are new coordinates.

Substituting it into Q(x,y)Q(x,y) we obtain


Q(x,y)=(xy)(cosθsinθsinθcosθ)T(a11a12a21a22)(cosθsinθsinθcosθ)(xy)Q(x,y) = \begin{pmatrix} x' & y' \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix}^T \begin{pmatrix} a_{11} & a_{12} \\ a_{21} & a_{22} \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x' \\ y' \end{pmatrix}


Thus,


δ=det{(cosθsinθsinθcosθ)T(a11a12a21a22)(cosθsinθsinθcosθ)}=\delta' = \det \left\{ \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix}^T \begin{pmatrix} a_{11} & a_{12} \\ a_{21} & a_{22} \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix} \right\} ==det(cosθsinθsinθcosθ)Tdet(a11a12a21a22)det(cosθsinθsinθcosθ)=sin2θ+cos2θ=1== \det \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix}^T \det \begin{pmatrix} a_{11} & a_{12} \\ a_{21} & a_{22} \end{pmatrix} \det \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix} = |\sin^2 \theta + \cos^2 \theta| = 1 ==det(a11a12a21a22)=δ= \det \begin{pmatrix} a_{11} & a_{12} \\ a_{21} & a_{22} \end{pmatrix} = \delta


This means that under such transformation δ\delta doesn't change, thus the curve can't change its class. So the statement is false.

Answer: false.

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