Since f : [0,2] -> R is continuous in [0, 2] and differentiable in (0, 2)
So it satisfies Mean Value Theorem.
i.e., (b−a)[f(b)−f(a)]=f′(c) ∀ c ∈ ( a, b)
f( 0) = 0
f(1) = 1
From Mean Value Theorem,
(1−0)[f(1)−f(0)]=f′(c1) ∀ c1 ∈ ( 0, 1)
1(1−0)=f′(c1)
∴ f'(c1) = 1 ∀ c1 ∈ ( 0, 1)
Comments