Since f : [0,2] -> R is continuous in [0, 2] and differentiable in (0, 2)
So it satisfies Mean Value Theorem.
i.e., "\\frac{[ f(b) - f(a) ]}{ ( b-a)} = f'(c)" ∀ c ∈ ( a, b)
f( 0) = 0
f(1) = 1
From Mean Value Theorem,
"\\frac{[ f(1) - f(0) ]}{ (1-0)} = f'(c1)" ∀ c1 ∈ ( 0, 1)
"\\frac{(1-0)}{1} = f'(c1)"
∴ f'(c1) = 1 ∀ c1 ∈ ( 0, 1)
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