Show that f:x mapping x/x+1 is one to one mapping
f(x) = x/(x+1)
For one to one mapping
we prove f(x1)=f(x2) "\\to" x1=x2 .
Let
f(x1) = x1/(x1+1)
f(x2)= x2/(x2+1)
now
f(x1)=f(x2)
x1/(x1+1) = x2/(x2+1)
x1(x2+1) = x2(x1+1)
x1x2+x1 = x2x1+x2
x1 = x2
hence it was proved that this function is one to one mapping.
Comments
Leave a comment