Question #82609

Prove that R ^n/R^m~=R^n-m as groups, where n, m belongs to N such that n>=m.
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Expert's answer

2018-11-02T15:33:09-0400

Answer to Question #82609, Math / Abstract Algebra

Question. Prove that Rn/RmRnm\mathbb{R}^n / \mathbb{R}^m \cong \mathbb{R}^{n - m} as groups, where n,mn, m belongs to N\mathbb{N} such that nmn \geq m.

Answer. Define a projection group homomorphism f:RnRnmf: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^{n - m} by


f((a1,,am,am+1,,an))=(am+1,,an).f \left(\left(a _ {1}, \dots , a _ {m}, a _ {m + 1}, \dots , a _ {n}\right)\right) = \left(a _ {m + 1}, \dots , a _ {n}\right).


We will use the First Group Isomorphism Theorem.

- The kernel of ff is the set of all elements aa of Rn\mathbb{R}^n having the form (a1,,an)(a_1, \ldots, a_n) such that all of the equivalent conditions below hold:

- f((a1,,am,am+1,,an))=(0,,0)f((a_1, \ldots, a_m, a_{m+1}, \ldots, a_n)) = (0, \ldots, 0);

- (am+1,,an)=(0,,0)(a_{m + 1},\ldots ,a_n) = (0,\ldots ,0);

- for all i{m+1,,n}i \in \{m + 1, \dots, n\}, ai=0a_i = 0;

- aa has the form (a1,,am,0,,0)(a_1, \ldots, a_m, 0, \ldots, 0).

Clearly, kerf\ker f has dimension mm and is Rm\mathbb{R}^m viewed as a subgroup of Rn\mathbb{R}^n.

- For every (am+1,,an)Rnm(a_{m + 1},\ldots ,a_n)\in \mathbb{R}^{n - m},


f((0,,0,am+1,,an))=(am+1,,an).f \left(\left(0, \dots , 0, a _ {m + 1}, \dots , a _ {n}\right)\right) = \left(a _ {m + 1}, \dots , a _ {n}\right).


Hence ff is surjective, and the range (image) of ff is Rnm\mathbb{R}^{n - m}.

By the First Group Isomorphism Theorem, Rn/RmRnm\mathbb{R}^n / \mathbb{R}^m \cong \mathbb{R}^{n - m}.

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