Question #44732

Show that the map f : Z+iZ → Z2, defined by f(a+ib) = (a−b) (mod 2), is an onto ring homomorphism. Describe kef f. Is it a maximal ideal? Justify your answer.
1

Expert's answer

2014-08-07T09:01:59-0400

Answer on Question #44732 – Math – Abstract Algebra

Show that the map f:Z+iZZ2f: \mathbb{Z} + i\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}_2, defined by f(a+ib)=(ab)(mod2)f(a + ib) = (a - b) \pmod{2}, is an onto-ring homomorphism. Describe Ker(f)\text{Ker}(f). Is it a maximal ideal? Justify your answer.

Solution.

We need to prove that x,yZ+iZ:f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y),f(xy)=f(x)f(y)\forall x, y \in \mathbb{Z} + i\mathbb{Z}: f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), f(x \cdot y) = f(x)f(y).


x,yZ+iZx=a1+ib1,y=a2+ib2,a1,a2,b1,b2Z;f(x+y)=f(a1+ib1+a2+ib2)=f(a1+a2+i(b1+b2))==(a1+a2b1b2)(mod2)=(a1b1+a2b2)(mod2)=f(x)+f(y);f(xy)=f((a1+ib1)(a2+ib2))=f(a1a2b1b2+i(a1b2+a2b1))==(a1a2b1b2a1b2a2b1)(mod2)=(a1a2b1b2a1b2a2b1+2b1b2)(mod2)==(a1a2+b1b2a1b2a2b1)(mod2)=(a1(a2b2)b1(a2b2))(mod2)==((a1b1)(a2b2))(mod2)=f(x)f(y);\begin{aligned} x, y \in \mathbb{Z} + i\mathbb{Z} &\Rightarrow x = a_1 + i b_1, y = a_2 + i b_2, a_1, a_2, b_1, b_2 \in \mathbb{Z}; \\ f(x + y) &= f(a_1 + i b_1 + a_2 + i b_2) = f\big(a_1 + a_2 + i(b_1 + b_2)\big) = \\ &= (a_1 + a_2 - b_1 - b_2) \pmod{2} = (a_1 - b_1 + a_2 - b_2) \pmod{2} = f(x) + f(y); \\ f(x \cdot y) &= f\big((a_1 + i b_1)(a_2 + i b_2)\big) = f\big(a_1 a_2 - b_1 b_2 + i(a_1 b_2 + a_2 b_1)\big) = \\ &= (a_1 a_2 - b_1 b_2 - a_1 b_2 - a_2 b_1) \pmod{2} = (a_1 a_2 - b_1 b_2 - a_1 b_2 - a_2 b_1 + 2 b_1 b_2) \pmod{2} = \\ &= (a_1 a_2 + b_1 b_2 - a_1 b_2 - a_2 b_1) \pmod{2} = \big(a_1(a_2 - b_2) - b_1(a_2 - b_2)\big) \pmod{2} = \\ &= \big((a_1 - b_1)(a_2 - b_2)\big) \pmod{2} = f(x) f(y); \end{aligned}


So, ff is a homomorphism of rings.


f(0)=(00)(mod2)=0;f(0) = (0 - 0) \pmod{2} = 0;f(1)=(10)(mod2)=1;f(1) = (1 - 0) \pmod{2} = 1;


All elements of Z2\mathbb{Z}_2 are images of ff, so ff is a homomorphism onto.

Find Ker(f)\text{Ker}(f):


f(a+ib)=0ab0(mod2)ab(mod2);f(a + ib) = 0 \Rightarrow a - b \equiv 0 \pmod{2} \Rightarrow a \equiv b \pmod{2};


Hence:


Ker(f)={a+ibab(mod2)}.\text{Ker}(f) = \{a + ib \mid a \equiv b \pmod{2}\}.


Prove that Ker(f)\text{Ker}(f) is a maximal ideal.

Assume the contrary, i.e. there exists ideal JKer(f)J \neq \text{Ker}(f) such that 1J1 \notin J and Ker(f)J\text{Ker}(f) \subset J.


JKer(f)a+ibJ:a+ibKer(f);J \neq \text{Ker}(f) \Rightarrow \exists a + ib \in J: a + ib \notin \text{Ker}(f);a+ibKer(f)ab1(mod2)[a=2n,b=2m+1a=2n+1,b=2m];a + ib \notin \text{Ker}(f) \Rightarrow a - b \equiv 1 \pmod{2} \Rightarrow \begin{bmatrix} a = 2n, b = 2m + 1 \\ a = 2n + 1, b = 2m \end{bmatrix};


Hence:


[2n+i(2m+1)J2n+1+i2mJ][2n+i(2m+1)(2n1+i(2m+1))J2n+1+i2m(2n+i2m)J]\begin{bmatrix} 2n + i(2m + 1) \in J \\ 2n + 1 + i2m \in J \end{bmatrix} \Rightarrow \begin{bmatrix} 2n + i(2m + 1) - (2n - 1 + i(2m + 1)) \in J \\ 2n + 1 + i2m - (2n + i2m) \in J \end{bmatrix} \Rightarrow[1J1J]1Jcontradiction.\Rightarrow \left[ \begin{array}{l} 1 \in J \\ 1 \in J \end{array} \right] \Rightarrow 1 \in J - \text{contradiction}.


So, our assumption doesn't hold and Ker(f)\text{Ker}(f) is a maximal ideal.

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