Answer on Question #44732 – Math – Abstract Algebra
Show that the map f:Z+iZ→Z2, defined by f(a+ib)=(a−b)(mod2), is an onto-ring homomorphism. Describe Ker(f). Is it a maximal ideal? Justify your answer.
Solution.
We need to prove that ∀x,y∈Z+iZ:f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y),f(x⋅y)=f(x)f(y).
x,y∈Z+iZf(x+y)f(x⋅y)⇒x=a1+ib1,y=a2+ib2,a1,a2,b1,b2∈Z;=f(a1+ib1+a2+ib2)=f(a1+a2+i(b1+b2))==(a1+a2−b1−b2)(mod2)=(a1−b1+a2−b2)(mod2)=f(x)+f(y);=f((a1+ib1)(a2+ib2))=f(a1a2−b1b2+i(a1b2+a2b1))==(a1a2−b1b2−a1b2−a2b1)(mod2)=(a1a2−b1b2−a1b2−a2b1+2b1b2)(mod2)==(a1a2+b1b2−a1b2−a2b1)(mod2)=(a1(a2−b2)−b1(a2−b2))(mod2)==((a1−b1)(a2−b2))(mod2)=f(x)f(y);
So, f is a homomorphism of rings.
f(0)=(0−0)(mod2)=0;f(1)=(1−0)(mod2)=1;
All elements of Z2 are images of f, so f is a homomorphism onto.
Find Ker(f):
f(a+ib)=0⇒a−b≡0(mod2)⇒a≡b(mod2);
Hence:
Ker(f)={a+ib∣a≡b(mod2)}.
Prove that Ker(f) is a maximal ideal.
Assume the contrary, i.e. there exists ideal J=Ker(f) such that 1∈/J and Ker(f)⊂J.
J=Ker(f)⇒∃a+ib∈J:a+ib∈/Ker(f);a+ib∈/Ker(f)⇒a−b≡1(mod2)⇒[a=2n,b=2m+1a=2n+1,b=2m];
Hence:
[2n+i(2m+1)∈J2n+1+i2m∈J]⇒[2n+i(2m+1)−(2n−1+i(2m+1))∈J2n+1+i2m−(2n+i2m)∈J]⇒⇒[1∈J1∈J]⇒1∈J−contradiction.
So, our assumption doesn't hold and Ker(f) is a maximal ideal.
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