If K ⊇ k is a splitting field for a finite-dimensional k-algebra R, does it follow that K is also a splitting field for any quotient algebra R of R?
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Expert's answer
2013-02-06T07:50:28-0500
Since this fails for subalgebras, animpulsive guess might be that it also fails for quotient algebras. However, the statement turns out to be true for quotient algebras. To prove this, we may assume that K = k. Consider the natural surjection ϕ : R → R'. Any simple left R'-moduleV may be viewed as a simple left R-module via ϕ. For any field extension L ⊇ k, V Lremains simple as aleft RL-module. Therefore, V Lis also asimple left R'L-module. This shows that V isabsolutely irreducible, so k is indeed a splitting field for R.
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