Question #17657

It is well known that, for any commutative noetherian R, (intersection) (rad R)^n = 0. Show that this need not be true for noncommutative right noetherian rings.

Expert's answer

Let AA be a commutative discrete valuation ring with a uniformizer π(that is nonzero)\pi(\text{that is nonzero}) and quotient field KK. Consider the ring R=(AK0K)R = \begin{pmatrix} A & K \\ 0 & K \end{pmatrix}, which is right noetherian (but not left noetherian). It is easy to check that


J:=(πAK00)J := \left( \begin{array}{cc} \pi A & K \\ 0 & 0 \end{array} \right)


is an ideal of RR, and that R/J(A/πA)×KR / J \sim (A / \pi A) \times K. Since the latter is a semisimple ring, we have radRJ\operatorname{rad} R \subseteq J. On the other hand, 1+J1 + J consists of matrices of the form


(1+πab01)(aA,bK),\left( \begin{array}{cc} 1 + \pi a & b \\ 0 & 1 \end{array} \right) (a \in A, b \in K),


which are clearly units of RR. Therefore, JradRJ \subseteq \operatorname{rad} R. We have nowJ=radR\operatorname{now} J = \operatorname{rad} R, from which it is easy to see that


(radR)n=(πnAK00),(\operatorname{rad} R)^\wedge n = \left( \begin{array}{cc} \pi^n A & K \\ 0 & 0 \end{array} \right),


for any n1n \geq 1. It follows that n1(radR)n=(0K00)0\bigcap_{n \geq 1} (\operatorname{rad} R)^n = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & K \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \neq 0.

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