Question #17357

For a triangular ring T =
R M
0 S
(where M is an (R, S) - bimodule), show that rad(T) =
rad(R) M
0 rad(S)

Expert's answer

Let J=rad(R)J = \operatorname{rad}(R), J=rad(S)J' = \operatorname{rad}(S), and I=(JM0J)I = \begin{pmatrix} J & M \\ 0 & J' \end{pmatrix}. It is routine to check that II is an ideal of TT, with T/IR/J×S/JT/I \sim R/J \times S/J'. The latter ring is JJ-semisimple, so we have rad(T)I\operatorname{rad}(T) \subseteq I. This will be an equality, as asserted, if we can show that 1+IU(T)1 + I \subseteq \mathrm{U}(T). Now any element of 1+I1 + I has the form (um0v)\begin{pmatrix} u & m \\ 0 & v \end{pmatrix}, where mMm \in M, uU(R)u \in \mathrm{U}(R), and vU(S)v \in \mathrm{U}(S). This is indeed in U(T)\mathrm{U}(T), since it has inverse (u1u1mv10v1)\begin{pmatrix} u^{-1} & -u^{-1}mv^{-1} \\ 0 & v^{-1} \end{pmatrix}.

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