Answer to Question #171360 in Macroeconomics for vaibhav rawat

Question #171360

Take a monopolist which has a access to two consumers with demands of Q1=4-P1 and Q2=2-P2.


1)assume the monopolist can set a price.what would be the price?would it serves to both to the customers.


1
Expert's answer
2021-03-22T08:06:11-0400

If the monopolist can set a price, then it will produce such output, at which MR = MC, and set the price from the demand curve at this quantity.

It would not serve to both of the customers, because they have different demand equations.


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