Question #117933
Find internal rate of return for the project whose cash flows are as flows: 8
Initial investment = Rs.5,00,000
Annual benefit = Rs. 1,50,000
Annual cost = Rs.30,000
Salvage value = Rs. 40,000
MARR = 12% per year
1
Expert's answer
2020-06-11T09:23:24-0400

Computing Internal rate of return using trial and error method;

steps;

  • Compute Net present value of the project using an arbitrary selected discount rate.
  • If the NPV so calculated is positive then try a higher rate and if negative try a lower rate.
  • Continue the process until the NPV is equal to zero.
  • Use linear interpolation to determine the exact rate

Formulas to be applied are as below,

pvif=1(1+r)n)pvif= {1 \above{2pt} \left(1+r )^{\smash{n}}\right)}


pvifa=1(1+r)(n)rpvifa= {1-(1+r )\left(^{\smash{n}}\right) \above{2pt} r}


IRR=Rl+NPVh(RhRl)NPVh+NPVlIRR=Rl+{NPVh*(Rh-Rl) \above{2pt} NPVh+NPVl}

where

r -rate of return

n -period in years

Rl-lower rate of return

Rh-higher rate of return

NPVh-Net present value using higher rate of return

NPVl-Net present value using lower rate of return


We select arbitrary discount rate, say 20.5% Assuming 10 year of usage.

since year one to year nine cash flows are in annuity,we first calculate NPV for the annuity as follows;

netcashflow=inflowsannualcostnet cash flow=inflows-annual cost


150,00030,000=120,000150,000-30,000=120,000


pva=120,0001(1+0.205)(9)0.205=476,085pva=120,000*{1-(1+0.205 )\left(^{\smash{9}}\right) \above{2pt} 0.205}=476,085


we then calculate present value for the 10th year,


netcashflow=inflowsannualcost+salvagevaluenet cash flow=inflows-annual cost +salvage value


150,00030,000+40,000=160,000150,000−30,000+40,000=160,000


pv=160,000(1+0.205)10)1=24,788pv=160,000∗(1+0.205)10)1=24,788


NPV=PVcashinflowsPVoutflowsNPV=PV cash inflows- PV outflows


NPV=476,085+24,788500,000=874NPV=476,085+24,788-500,000=874


NPV using a rate of 20.5% is 874,since it is positive but not large we can try a closer higher rate

remember our target is to have NPV at zero

Lets try 20.6, we apply the same concept as above


pva=120,0001(1+0.206)(9)0.206=474,576pva=120,000*{1-(1+0.206 )\left(^{\smash{9}}\right) \above{2pt} 0.206}=474,576


pv=160,0001(1+0.206)10)=24,576pv=160,000* {1 \above{2pt} \left(1+0.206 )^{\smash{10}}\right)}=24,576


NPV=474,085+24,576500,000=848NPV=474,085+24,576-500,000=-848


NPV using a rate of 20.6% is 848

since we have two rate which are close to zero we can use formula 3 above to calculate the exact IRR


IRR=20.5+874(20.620.5)874848=20.55IRR=20.5+{874*(20.6-20.5) \above{2pt} 874--848} =20.55


IRR=20.55%IRR=20.55\%








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