Use reduction of order, to find a second solution π¦2(t) of the given differential equation, while π¦1(t) is its first solution π‘π¦ β²β² β π¦ β² + 4π¦π‘3 = 0 , π‘ > 0 , π¦1 (π‘) = πππ(π‘ 2 ) . Is these solutions π¦1(π‘) and π¦2(π‘) are independent?
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