Question #17657
It is well known that, for any commutative noetherian R, (intersection) (rad R)^n = 0. Show that this need not be true for noncommutative right noetherian rings.
1
Expert's answer
2012-11-19T07:44:55-0500
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Comments

Assignment Expert
31.03.20, 17:23

Dear Kamal, please use the panel for submitting new questions.

Kamal
31.03.20, 16:18

Why zero ring is artinian as well as noetherian?

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